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sorednaxParticipantI’ve heard that before, but for male homosexual activity, I can’t uderstand why the ‘Reciver’ is considered ‘gay’ but the penetrator isn’t. I mean if a straight guy is beaten and raped, does that make him gay even though he was unwilling? In order for a gay man to penetrate a males anus, he needs to be erect. Therefor, he must desire the male anus enough to obtain an erection. It just doesn’t make sense that way.
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Name : sorednax, City : Fort Mill, State : SC, Country : United States,- AuthorPosts
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