[Joachim-(Jock)-F]

In the U.S. legal system, why is it that a person accused in a criminal court of a crime and found not guilty can be sued in a civil court for the same matter and be found guilty (i.e. O.J. Simpson)? Here in Australia, I have not been able to find anybody to satisfactorily explain this to me.
Original Code G15. Click here to see responses from the original archives. Click “to respond” below to reply.

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Name : Joachim-(Jock)-F, Gender : M, Age : 56, City : Hobart, Tasmania, State : NA, Country : Australia, 

[Karen]

In a criminal case the judgment is either guilty or innocent. In a civil case, the judgment gauges responsibility on a percent scale. If you are found more than 50 percent liable, you are held liable. This is why you could be found not guilty of a crime, but still liable. There could be enough evidence to convince a jury that you are liable in a civil case, but at the same time, that evidence may not convince a jury you are guilty beyond a reasonable doubt.

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Name : Karen, Sexual Orientation : Straight, Race : White/Caucasian, Religion : Pagan, Age : 24, City : Fitchburg, State : MA, Country : United States, Occupation : Manager, Education level : 4 Years of College, Social class : Middle class, 

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