[Jayvee]

Why do the residents of the United States call themselves ‘Americans,’ when there are many countries of North, Central, and South America that might be inferred by the general term, ‘American.’ I read a 300 page book on political discussion, written by a non-U.S. author, that did not use the term ‘American’ in its many references to the United States. Is this usurption, by only one of the peoples eligible to use the term, an act of ‘ignorance,’ ‘inconsideration,’ ‘dominance,’ or ‘arrogance’? Is this type of usurption more typical of the United States than of other countries?

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Name : Jayvee, Gender : M, Sexual Orientation : Straight, Race : Black/African American, Religion : Baptist, Age : 47, City : Oakland, State : CA, Country : United States, Occupation : Architect, Education level : Over 4 Years of College, Social class : Middle class, 

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